Every question answered and explained.

The answers and explanations were written by leading Test preparation professionals.

RealTestQuestions.com is a private initiative to bring students real actual test questions answered.

For any questions log on to www.realtestquestions.com

Have a good SAT/PSAT exam.

20 chapters of reading comprehensions questions (4 questions each):

6 chapters of analogy questions:

6 chapters of sentence completions questions (20 questions each):

6 chapters of Quantitative comparison questions (12 questions each):

6 chapters of grid questions (12 questions each):

6 chapters of Mathematical Reasoning questions (25 questions each):

Every question answered and explained.

SAT verbal test

These questions closely resemble real test questions collected by students from 2000 to 2003.

The answers and explanations were written by leading Test preparation professionals.

RealTestQuestions.com is a private initiative to bring students real actual test questions answered.

For any questions log on to www.realtestquestions.com

Have a good SAT/PSAT exam.

20 chapters of reading comprehensions questions (4 questions each):

6 chapters of analogy questions:

6 chapters of sentence completions questions (20 questions each):

Every question answered and explained.

SAT verbal test

Chapters

These questions closely resemble real test questions collected by students from 2000 to 2003.

The answers and explanations were written by leading Test preparation professionals.

RealTestQuestions.com is a private initiative to bring students real actual test questions answered.

For any questions log on to www.realtestquestions.com

Have a good SAT/PSAT exam.

20 chapters of reading comprehensions questions (4 questions each):

Every question answered and explained.

On May 5th, 1997, the European edition of Business Tech Magazine led with Hoffman’s cover story "Internet Communities: How They're Shaping Electronic Commerce". This cover story highlights the extent to which the term virtual community has become almost synonymous with various forms of group-CMCs (computer mediated communication), including email-list forums, chat-systems such as IRC, web-based discussion areas and usenet news-groups. There was no debate in the Business Tech Magazine article as to whether the group-CMC discussions are really 'communities', rather how community as opposed to content can be used to encourage people to return to a particular part of cyberspace for commercial gain. In a similar vein, Simpson and Armstrong in "Internet Gain" argue that ignoring virtual communities would be a great loss of a marketing tool for businesses. They define virtual communities as computer mediated space where there is an integration of content and communication with an emphasis on member-generated content.

Not all virtual community commentators agree with the Spartan position taken by Hoffman. Rheingold, one of the prime popularizers of the term virtual community, provides us with a more emotive definition in his book The Virtual Community: Homesteading on the Electronic Frontier. According to Rheingold, "virtual communities are social aggregations that emerge from the Net when enough people carry on those public discussions long enough, with sufficient human feeling, to form webs of personal relationships in cyberspace". Rheingold's definition is extremely popular and has been quoted in many discussions about virtual communities. As discussed below, for social scientists, particularly sociologists, Rheingold's definition raises many issues, especially concerning the notion of community. This is because Rheingold argues via a variety of analogies from the real worldsuch as homesteading that virtual communities are indeed new forms of "community". In fact, Rheingold implies that virtual communities are actually "a kind of ultimate flowering of community". Moreover, Rheingold maintains that whenever computer mediated communications technology becomes available, people inevitably create communities with it. Rheingold can thus be labeled as a technological determinist as he holds that there is a predictable relationship between technology and people's behavior.

The debate over the validity of Rheingold's position has raised doubts about the existence of virtual communities and the appropriate use of the term. Weinreich claims that the idea of virtual communities must be wrong because community is a collective of kinship networks that share a common geographic region, a common history, and a shared value system, usually rooted in a common religion. In other words, Weinreich rejects the existence of virtual communities because group-CMC discussions cannot possibly meet his definition. In Weinreich's view, anyone with even a basic knowledge of sociology understands that information exchange in no way constitutes a community.

1. The primary purpose of the passage is to

(A) suggest an alternate definition for the term virtual communities

(B) challenge the validity of group-CMCs in the virtual community

(D) present two opposing hypotheses and presents research and evidence to support them

(E) emphasize the unsuitability of traditional definitions of community in light of the recent establishment of virtual communities on the Net

The best answer is C. The passage begins by presenting the viewpoint of those that believe that group-CMCs are true communities and continues by presenting an opposing view. D is incorrect because definitions, not hypotheses are discussed in the passage.

2. According to Simpson and Armstrong, virtual communities

(A) are not as effective as content in encouraging people to return to a particular part of the Internet.

(B) emphasize attracting new members through their use of absorbing content

(D) has become almost synonymous with various forms of group-CMCs

(E) are an invaluable marketing tool for businesses.

The best answer is E. According to Simpson and Armstrong ignoring virtual communities would be a loss. In other word, virtual communities are invaluable. The word invaluable means very useful.

3. Weinreich rejects Rheingold’s inclusion of virtual communities in the definition of communities for all of the following reasons EXCEPT

(A) virtual communities do not usually exchange information

(B) virtual communities do not usually share the same territory

(D) virtual communities do not usually share a common history

(E) virtual communities are not usually rooted in a common religion

The best answer is A. The question asks you to identify what does NOT stop Weinreich from considering a virtual community a real community. An exchange of information is not problematic for Weinreich.

4. The author says ‘there was no debate in the Business Tech Magazine article’ to emphasize which of the following points?

(A) It is not content but community that can be used to entice the public to go back to a commercial website

(B) It is not community but content that can be used to entice the public to go back to a commercial website

(D) There are various forms of group-CMCs, including email-list forums, chat-systems, web-based discussion areas and usenet news-groups.

(E) Business Tech Magazine had already made the assumption that group-CMCs are communities.

The best answer is E. The passage discusses whether group-CMCs are communities. Business Tech Magazine does not debate this issue because it has already made the assumption that they are.

Take a very commonplace, often discussed and critical topic: Are we detecting a greenhouse effect, and related to this, is it exacerbated by "homogenic factors," i.e., human actions? Most would be inclined to give a positive answer to both of these questions. But, if pushed, what would be the evidence, and how well grounded would it be for such affirmations?

Within scientific communities and associated scientifically informed circles, the answers have to be somewhat more ambiguous, particularly when rigorous questions concerning evidence are raised. Were scientific truth to be a matter of consensus, and some argue that scientific truth often turns out to be just that, then it is clear that there is beginning to be a kind of majority consensus among many earth science practitioners that the temperature of the Earth, particularly of the oceans, is indeed rising and that this is a crucial indicator for a possible greenhouse effect.

Most of these scientists admit that the mean oceanic temperature has risen globally in the last several decades. But this generalization depends upon how accurate measurements may be, not just for samples, but also for the whole Earth. Hot spots, for example the now four year old hot spot near New Guinea which is part of the El Niño cycle, does not count by itself because it might be balanced by cold spots elsewhere. And the fact of the matter is that "whole earth measurements" are still rare and primitive in the simple sense that we simply do not have enough thermometers out. Secondly, even if we had enough thermometers, a simply synchronic whole earth measurement over three decades is but a blip in the diachronic history of ice age cycles over the last tens of thousands of years. Thirdly, even if we know that the earth is now heating up, has an ever increasing ozone hole, and from this strange weather effects can be predicted, how much of this is due to homogenic factors, such as CFCs, CO2 increases, hydrocarbon burning, and the like? Is it really the case, as Science magazine claimed in l990, "24% of greenhouse encouraging gases are of homogenic origin"?

1. In this passage the author is primarily interested in

(A) whether scientific truths are simply a matter of consensus

(B) determining how well established the greenhouse effect is and to what degree it is worsened by human actions

(D) determining if most scientists would be inclined to give a positive answer to the question of whether there is a greenhouse effect and if it is worsened by human actions

(E) making a simple synchronic whole earth measurement more than a blip in the diachronic history of Ice Age cycles over the last tens of thousands of years.

The best answer is B. The author questions the claim that there is indeed a greenhouse effect that is made worse by human actions. (A) is too general an answer, while (D) is too specific. (D) is wrong because it is probing whether scientists agree, not whether there the phenomenon actually exists.

2. The author of the passage would be most likely to agree with which of the following statements about the greenhouse effect?

(A) 24% of greenhouse encouraging gases are of homogenic origin.

(B) there is a greenhouse effect that is exacerbated by homogenic factors.

(C) The ozone hole is increasing due to homogenic factors, such as CFCs, CO2 increases, hydrocarbon burning, and the like.

(D) One can determine if mean oceanic temperatures have risen globally in the last several decades only if measurements of ocean temperatures are precise.

(E) Hot spots, such as the El Niño cycle, should not be counted as a factor in the greenhouse effect.

The best answer is D. Scientists are basing their claims on global warning on rising ocean temperatures. One can tell if temperatures have in fact risen only by measuring them correctly.

3. It can be inferred from the passage that

(A) we cannot be certain that strange weather effects are a result of the earth heating up and an ever increasing ozone hole

(B) the greenhouse effect is the most widely discussed topic in the scientifically informed circles

(C) If the temperature of the oceans has ceased to rise at an ever increasing rate, then the rate of global warming has increased

(D) strange weather effects have been shown to be due to the diachronic effects of hydrocarbon burning and not to increases in CFC.

(E) Strange weather effects are caused by the increase use of CFCs, CO2, and similar gasses.

The best answer is A. The author is questioning the cause and effect relationship between the increasingly large ozone hole and global warming, as well as cause and effect relationship between global warming and strange weather effects.

4. The author’s claim that, a simply synchronic whole earth measurement over three decades is but a blip in the diachronic history of ice age cycles over the last tens of thousands of years would be strengthened if the author

(A) indicated the minimum number of thermometers necessary for a whole earth measurement

(B) described the factors that precipitated the start of a new ice age

(D) proved that the mean number of years required to detect significant changes in weather patterns is greater than thirty

(E) specified the exact location and quantity of thermometers placed by scientists around the globe

The best answer is D. If one knows that change can be detected only after much more than thirty years, then measurements taken over a thirty year period is insignificant

An Australian group named Action Council on Smoking and Health (ACSH) has recently lobbied to make warnings on cigarette packets more graphic. The council proposed that striking visual photos of diseased organs should be put on at least 50% of outside packaging, in conjunction with health warnings outlining smoking hazards enumerated in a separate leaflet placed inside the cigarette packet. The ACSH claim that bland and ineffectual warnings like "Smoking is a health hazard" currently found on cigarette packets are not nearly sufficient. Substituting those inadequate admonitions with explicit photos will provide a powerful visual stimulus to help smokers relinquish their habit. The current cautions on cigarette packets have little or no impact on smokers who have grown immune to the warnings that focus on abstract tobacco related risks and illnesses from which smokers can easily disassociate themselves. The proposed new tactics would concentrate on the perspective of the individual smoker through a demonstration of what is occurring in his body each time he reaches for a cigarette, rather than a generic cautionary word of advise. The ACSH cited the results of recent studies conducted by psychologists at McKean University confirming that evidence related to one's own experience is more effective at influencing future behavior than a presentation of facts and figures. An further rationale for the addition of pictures to cigarette packages is the finding that smokers handle their packets 20-30 times a day, on average, thus, if graphic pictures on cigarette packets were introduced, smoker would have 20-30 chances to face the harsh reality of what damage they are doing to themselves each time they light up. Even more essential than the pictures on the outside label, ACSH strongly advocate including warnings and helpful information in a leaflet inserted into the packet of cigarettes. Even an analgesic, ACSH adds, found in every bathroom cabinet has all possible side effects enumerated in the insert. How much more imperative is it then when the substance in question is tobacco, a dried weed that contains highly noxious nicotine that society still accepts even though it kills one of every two of its users. Fundamentally, what is at stake here is consumer rights. Smokers should know what substances they are inhaling, and what damage they are inflicting to their bodies, though surprisingly, even today, many do not. For this reason alone, the recommendation for more graphic pictures and warnings on cigarette packets, which many seem excessive, is being seriously considered.

1. It can be inferred from the passage

(A) That cigarette manufacturers would comply with regulations ordering them to add graphic pictures of diseased organs to their outside packaging.

(B) That society will not continue to condone smoking if it is proven even more dangerous than was previously assumed.

(D) That if the written warnings were less bland and ineffectual, smokers would not take more notice of them.

(E) That smokers look at their cigarette packages each time they take out a cigarette.

The best answer is C. We do not have information about (A) (B) and (D) from the passage. (E) is incorrect because the passage claims that smokers have an opportunity to look at their cigarette packages, not that they actually do.

2. The author cites studies conducted at McKean University to account for why

(A) A presentation of facts and figures is more effective at influencing future behavior than evidence related to one's own experience.

(B) A presentation of facts and figures is less effective at influencing future behavior than evidence related to one's own experience.

(D) The ACSH claim that graphic visual pictures of diseased organs would not be more effective than stating facts about the consequences to the body of long-term smoking.

(E) The ACSH claim that graphic visual pictures of diseased organs would not be less effective than stating facts about the consequences to the body of long-term smoking.

The best answer is E. The author mentions the study as evidence presented by the ACSH to back their claim that visual pictures would be more effective than the present warning found on cigarette boxes.

3. Which of the following, if true, would be most useful in supporting the claims made by the ACSH?

(A) There is firm evidence that information communicated in a textual format is more convincing than the same information conveyed in the form of visual depictions.

(B) There is firm evidence that information conveyed in the form of visual depictions is more convincing than the same information communicated in a textual format.

(C) A study of over 3000 individuals shows a statistically significant relationship between levels of nicotine in cigarettes and pulmonary damage.

(D) A study of over 3000 individuals shows a statistically significant relationship between smoking and pulmonary damage.

(E) A survey reveals that 79% of smokers look at their cigarette packages when taking out a cigarette.

The best answer is B. If smokers were more convinced of the dangers of smoker by pictures than by text, they would be more likely to be influenced by the pictures that the ACSH is proposing.

4. The passage does NOT state which of the following about smoking warnings.

(A) Current graphic warnings are effective.

(B) The addition of graphic warnings would be an impetus to smokers to relinquish their habit.

(D) Current written warnings are not effective.

(E) Current written warnings are not as exhaustive as those that accompany common analgesics.

The best answer is A. The passage does not say that current graphic warnings are effective since there are currently no graphic warnings, only written ones.

Gene therapy offers a new treatment paradigm for curing human disease. Rather than altering the disease phenotype by using agents that interact with gene products, or are themselves gene products, gene therapy can theoretically modify specific genes resulting in disease cure following a single administration. Initially gene therapy was envisioned for the treatment of genetic disorders, but is currently being studied for use with a wide range of diseases, including cancer, peripheral vascular disease, arthritis, Neurodegenerative disorders and other acquired diseases.

Certain key elements are required for a successful gene therapy strategy. The most elementary of these is that the relevant gene be identified and cloned. Upon completion of the Human Genome Project, gene availability will be unlimited. Once identified and cloned, the next consideration must be expression of the gene. Questions pertaining to the efficiency of gene transfer and gene expression remain at the forefront of gene therapy research, with current debates revolving around the transfer of desired genes to appropriate cells, and then to obtaining sufficient levels of expression for disease treatment. With luck, future research on gene transfer and tissue-specific gene expression will resolve these issues for the majority of gene therapy protocols.

Other important considerations for a gene therapy strategy include a sufficient understanding of the pathogenesis of the targeted disorder, potential side effects of the gene therapy treatment, and a more in depth understanding of the target cells which are to receive gene therapy.

Gene transfer vector is the mechanism by which the gene is transferred into a cell. Currently there are at least 150 clinical gene therapy protocols worldwide. Since the approval process for these protocols is not as public outside the U.S., it is difficult to ascertain the exact number of worldwide protocols. As of December 1995, 1024 patients had been treated with either a gene transfer or gene therapy protocol. Much controversy exists regarding how many of these patients have benefited from their gene therapy, and no one has yet been cured.

Public controversy in the field of human gene therapy is driven by several factors. Ordinary citizens as well as scientists easily understand the enormous potential of gene therapy, but the former may not appreciate all the pitfalls and uncertainly that lie in the immediate future. The financial interests of biotechnology firms and, some have asserted, the career interests of some gene therapists have encouraged extravagant, or at least overly optimistic public statements about contemporary gene therapy. In spite of the proliferation of protocols, the actual number of patients treated remains small, and only one genuinely controlled study of human gene therapy has been published as of this date.

1. In the passage, the author anticipates which of the following as a possible obstacle to the introduction of gene therapy to mainstream medicine?

(A) Overly optimistic public statements given by scientists who have a vested interest

(B) The general public’s difficulty in grasping gene therapy’s vast potential.

(D) The relatively small number of controlled studies of human gene therapy published as of this date.

(E) Hazards of which the general public is currently unaware.

The best answer is E. The passage states that both ordinary citizens and scientists understand potential of gene therapy, but the former, i.e. the general public may not appreciate all the pitfalls and uncertainty that lie in the immediate future.

2. All of the following are mentioned in the passage as elements that are required for a successful gene therapy strategy EXCEPT:

(A) Identifying the relevant gene

(B) Expressing the relevant gene

(D) Understanding of the pathogenesis of the targeted disorder

(E) Gaining and a more in depth understanding of the target cells which are to receive gene therapy.

The best answer is C. One must determine the side effects of the relevant gene therapy treatment, and not of the relevant gene itself.

3. The author’s attitude toward the gene therapy as a future cure for cancer, peripheral vascular disease, arthritis, Neurodegenerative disorders and other acquired diseases is

(A) Indifference

(B) Disapproval

(D) Cautious optimism

(E) Censure

The best answer is D. In the opening sentence, the author optimistically states that gene therapy offers a new treatment paradigm for curing human disease. However, in the fifth paragraph the author mentions some of the problems.

4. The primary function of the fifth paragraph is to

(A) Explain effects

(B) Recommend actions

(D) Evaluate solutions

(E) Warn of consequences

The best answer is C. The fifth paragraph is devoted to identifying various problems in the field today, such as the exaggerated claims made by biotechnological firms with vested financial interests.

Unlike the United States with its generalissimo politicians - Washington, Jackson, Grant, and Eisenhower- the ‘martial arts’ have been conspicuously absent from Canadian politics. The exception to the rule is former Prime Minister Pierre Elliot Trudeau, who became the first Canadian leader to bring a gunslinger ethos to Canadian politics. Trudeau introduced Canada to the refined art of single combat; it was the politics of “doing it my way”. Single-combat confrontation implied much more than the renegade in power did, and far less than the tricks of William Lyon Mackenzie King, prime minister intermittently between 1921 and 1948.

Trudeau’s unique background prepared him for the role of authoritarian leader he would assume later in life. Born on October 18, 1919, Trudeau lived in French-speaking Montreal, but heard English at home from his mother, making it easy for the young politician to appeal to all sectors of Canada, a bilingual country. As a young man, he walked and cycled through Europe, finding himself on occasion on the wrong side of the bars in foreign jails. By 1940, Trudeau entered the law faculty at the University of Montreal. As a student he enlisted in the Canadian Officers Training Corps, where he was given a commission as a lieutenant, a rank he held until his retirement in 1947. Trudeau, a renowned sportsman, held a brown belt in karate, knew how to skin dive and could descend 150 feet off a cliff with ease. He continued performing flamboyant physical feats even in later life as Canada’s fifteenth prime minister, astounding Canadians with his prowess. The public’s adoration made it possible for him to practice his personal brand of ‘do it my way’ politics, initiating profound and long-lasting changes to his country.

Other leaders would never have undertaken to deal with such taboo issues as divorce, abortion and homosexuality– matters likely to infuriate conservative Canada from coast to coast. Even the powerful Mackenzie King dared not touch any of the three, though Trudeau tackled them together in an omnibus bill as Minister of Justice under Lester B. Pearson. His reason for loosening legislation on these issues was, as he put poetically put it, "The state has no business in the bedrooms of the nation." The myths-makers have it that this was Trudeau's first deliberate ‘gun slinging’ move, performed with the ultimate goal of attaining national leadership. Contrary to popular belief, Trudeau had no leadership aspirations at the time; all he had was a passion for combat that eclipsed other religious considerations. Trudeau instigated far-reaching changes in legislation governing divorce, abortion and homosexuality that have had a major impact on Canada, shaping the country into what it is today.

1. The primary focus of the passage is on which of the following?

(A) Comparing two Canadian prime ministers and contrasting their personal style of leadership

(B) Describing the leadership style of one of Canada’s prime ministers

(D) Summarizing the contribution of one of Canada’s prime ministers

(E) Tracing the long-term impact of legislation put forward by one of Canada’s prime ministers

The best answer is B. The passage describes the ‘doing it my way’ type leadership style of former Prime Minister Pierre Elliot Trudeau.

2. It can be inferred from the passage that former Prime Minister William Lyon Mackenzie King

(A) was opposed to abortion and put forward legislation making it illegal

(B) was opposed to abortion but did not put forward legislation making it illegal

(D) was in favor of abortion but did not put forward legislation making it legal

(E) did not put forward legislation making abortion legal

The best answer is E. The passage states that Mackenzie King dared not touch the issue of abortion, so it can be inferred from the passage that he did not put forward any abortion legislation. The passage provides no information on what Mackenzie King’s opinions were on the subject.

3. The author of the passage mentions Trudeau’s accomplishments in sports primarily in order to

(A) Explain the source of Trudeau’s physical stamina

(B) Illustrate that he had earned the adoration of the Canadian public

(D) Provide one reason why he was able to single-handedly push through legislation that should normally have shocked conservative Canada

(E) Provide one reason why he was able to single-handedly thwart legislation that should normally have shocked conservative Canada

The best answer is D. One of the ways Trudeau won the hearts and minds of the Canadian public was by astounding them with his physical prowess. Because the public was so awed by Trudeau as an individual, he was able to pass legislation considered progressive.

4. The quotation "The state has no business in the bedrooms of the nation," is most probably used to

(A) present the opinion that the state should have less of a say in issues that are essentially not public matters

(B) present the opinion that the state should have less of a say in issues that are essentially public matters

(D) provide an example of Pierre Elliot Trudeau’s flamboyant style that he used to captivate the Canadian public

(E) contrast Pierre Elliot Trudeau’s flamboyant style with that of Lester B. Pearson

The best answer is A. Matters that concern “the bedrooms of the nation” are private matters. Trudeau sought to reduce government control in such matters. Answers (B) and (C) say the opposite, namely that government control in public matters

Art is visible. However, everything one sees is filtered through certain conditions, some of them historical, and others, natural. The historical conditions include the material which is used — oil, colors, and the canvas; second, a certain style, i.e., a system of rules by which things visible are submitted a priori. There can be a general style, for example, the style of Impressionism, or a particular style, for example, the individual ways in which two painters, both impressionists, paint. The natural conditions include certain unchanging psychological laws of sight, for instance, the effects of colors or optical illusions.

The conditions of art are nothing but a particular way of interpreting reality. To understand this, one can examine the difference between the classical Greek and the classical Egyptian styles. For the Greeks, the reality of the visible was given by the perspective and the situation in which the object appears; for that reason they presented a person in his individual movements. For the Egyptians, however, this was only the appearance of a transitory moment, which, according to their beliefs, was not real. Therefore, the Egyptians searched for the permanent essence and the typical character in their depiction of an object. For the Egyptians, Greek art was an illusion; for the Greeks, on the other hand, Egyptian art was unrealistic constructivism.

The way in which reality appears in art must not be regarded on its own. It is affected by many other systems of recognizing reality, including the political, religious, economic, intellectual, and social — in short, all the phenomena of human life. Moreover, art is always of a certain epoch, with its particular conception of reality. Thus, when discussing, for example, the art of ancient myth, of medieval Christianity, or that of the technological age, one must be aware that myth, Christianity, or technology was the most salient feature of the epoch.

It is paradoxical to understand art as some kind of copy of the fields of experience connected with it. So, for example, it is meaningless for the work of art as such if one compares the landscape of a painting with the landscape, which served the artist as his model. Even if the artist had tried to make what he painted as similar as possible to the model he used, the landscape which he saw is only the matter from which something completely different emerges since he has submitted its view to the a priori conditions of art: namely to the material used (colors, canvas, etc.), to his style, and even to the fact that he paints on a flat surface. Thus one must contemplate a work of art by itself. Even if it is connected to other fields of experience it nevertheless displays something unique which appears in that piece of art and there alone.

1. According to the passage, classical Egyptians did not present a person in his individual movements

(A) Because the Greeks believed that the reality of the visible was given by the perspective and the situation in which the object appears

(B) Because the Greeks did not believe that the reality of the visible was given by the perspective and the situation in which the object appears

(C) Because the Egyptians believed that the reality of the visible was given by the perspective and the situation in which the object appears

(D) Because the Egyptians did not believe that the reality of the visible was given by the perspective and the situation in which the object appears

(E) Because for the Egyptians, Greek art was an illusion.

The best answer is D. The Egyptians believed that the reality of the visible was not given by the perspective and the situation in which the object appears. They thought that this was the appearance of a transitory moment, which was not real.

2. The author mentions which of the following as one of the conditions through which art is seen?

(A) Impressionism

(B) Optical illusions

(D) Perspective

(E) Illusions

The best answer is B. The author states in the first paragraph that art is seen through natural conditions including optical illusions.

3. By asserting that art is filtered through certain conditions (line???), the author suggests which of the following?

(A) Even if the artist tried to make what he painted as similar as possible to the model he used, he would not succeed

(B) Even if the artist tried to make what he painted as similar as possible to the model he used, it would be impossible to critique it

(C) Even if the artist tried to make what he painted as similar as possible to the model he used, the landscape would be affected by many other systems of recognizing reality

(D) The way in which reality appears in art influences other systems of recognizing reality, including the political, religious, economic, intellectual, and social

(E) The way in which reality appears in art is influenced by other systems of recognizing reality, including the political, religious, economic, intellectual, and social

The best answer is E. The author states in paragraph three that the way in which reality appears in art is affected by many other systems of recognizing reality, including the political, religious, economic, intellectual, and social — in short, all the phenomena of human life.

4. The author cites the example of psychological laws of sight, for instance, the effects of colors or optical illusions in order to illustrate

(A) Laws of nature, which are not affected by history

(B) Laws of nature, which are affected by history

(D) Laws of history, which are affected by nature

(E) Laws of history, which are not affected by nature

The best answer is A. The author details two kinds of conditions, historical and natural. The natural conditions are said to be unchanging, therefore not affected by history.

For a generation of suppressed, restless, working-class youths living in 1960 Jamaica, ska was a medium through which they could find expression. Since its original appearance, ska has resurfaced twice, each time presenting itself in a different guise to a new generation of music aficionados. Overcoming its humble beginnings, it has become one of the twentieth century’s most enduring and influential styles of music.

Since the early 1940's, Jamaica had adopted and adapted many forms of American musical styles. The predominantly black inhabitants of Jamaica took a liking to rhythm and blues music, importing a considerable number of American records that were showcased at dance halls in the early 1960s. Jamaican musicians took up the elements of rhythm and blues and combined it with traditional Jamaican mento music. The result was the first wave of ska.

Musically, ska is a shuffle rhythm similar to mento but with even closer ties to rhythm and blues, placing the accent on the second and fourth beats, often moving in a 12-bar blues frame. The after beat, played on the piano or strummed by a rhythm guitar, came to be characteristic of the form. A horn section, usually consisting of trumpets, trombones, and saxophones, was a vital element. Classic bands, such as the Wailers wrote songs written about Trench Town (a ghetto), rude boys (street thugs), romance, and even religious themes. In 1965, ska began to take a backseat to a newly evolved type of music, called rock steady, which was more dependent than ska had been on rhythm provided by the bass guitar and drums.

Ska was later exported by traveling Jamaican artists to Great Britain, where it became known as "blue beat." By the mid 1970's, early British punk bands were infusing reggae, a style of music that came from rock steady, into their music. Near the end of the decade, however, there was a resurgence of the influence of ska because of its upbeat, danceable rhythm. This faster paced ska came to be known as two tone. One of the essential messages of two-tone ska was the promotion of racial harmony and of having fun in the face of subjugation.

The third wave of ska began in America around 1990. Bands influenced by the two-tone ska scene began to use punk and metal music to a greater extent. The combination, which is much faster than two tone, sounds very different from the original Jamaican brand of ska.

In its three different waves, ska has given voice to seemingly voiceless, downtrodden generations. Each time it resurfaces, a new message is taken up, however, the old messages are never forgotten.

1. The primary purpose of this passage is to

Contrast the musical rhythm of two-tone music with original Jamaican ska from which it developed

Illustrate various ways in which rhythm and blues has influenced ska music

Outline the influences on the various forms of ska music from its inception in Jamaica in early 1960s through its third wave in the 1990s

Describe events leading to the inception, rise and final demise of Jamaican ska music

Trace to evolution of ska music from its inception in Jamaica in early 1960s through its third wave in the 1990s

The best answer is E. The passage follows the development of ska. (D) is incorrect because the passage does not deal with the demise, or death, of ska music.

2. According to the passage, Ska music has

Been influenced by rhythm and blues, mento and blue beat

Been influenced by rhythm and blues, and has influenced mento and rock steady

Been influenced by rhythm and blues and rock steady and has influenced punk and metal musicians

Influenced rhythm and blues, reggae and metal musicians.

Been influenced by mento music and has influenced punk and metal musicians.

The best answer is E. Ska music has been influenced, among other things, by mento music. In paragraph five, it is mentioned that ska musicians have influenced both punk and metal musicians.

3. Which of the following statements about ska music is supported by information in the passage?

Rock steady is more dependent than ska on the rhythm provided by the bass guitar and drums.

Reggae, which counts ska as one of its primary influences, developed only after it was exported by traveling Jamaican artists to Great Britain

Ska’s appeal over the last half century has been limited to voiceless, downtrodden generations.

Two-tone is a faster paced form of ska that developed in the late 1970s

Mento music places the accent on the second and fourth beats, often moving in a 12-bar blues-frame.

The best answer is D. In paragraph four, it says that this faster paced ska came to be known as two tone.

4. The passage suggests that two tone music

I. Resurged near the end of the 1970s

II. Influenced bands in America in the 1990s

III. Promoted of racial harmony and of having fun in the face of oppression.

I only

II only

III only

II and III only

I, and II, and III

The best answer is E. (E) is the best choice because all of the facts presented above are supported by the passage.

Coca-Cola, which sold 10 billion cases of soft drinks in 1992, now finds itself asking, where will sales of the next 10 billion cases come from? The answer lies overseas, where income levels and appetites for Western products are at an all time high.

Often, the company that gets into a foreign market earliest dominates that country's market. Coke patriarch Robert Woodruff realized this and unleashed a brilliant ploy to make Coke the early bird in many of the major foreign markets. At the height of World War II, Woodruff proclaimed, “Wherever American boys were fighting, they'd be able to get a Coke.” By the time Pepsi tried to make its first international pitch in the 1950s, Coke had established its brand name along with a powerful distribution network.

During the last 40 years, many new markets have emerged. In order to tap into these opportunities, both coke and Pepsi have attempted to find ways to cut through the red tape that thwarts their efforts to conduct business in these new regions.

One key maneuver in the soda wars occurred in 1972, when Pepsi signed an agreement with the Soviet Union that made it the first Western product to be sold to consumers in Russia. This landmark agreement gave Pepsi the upper hand. At present, Pepsi has 23 plants in the former Soviet Union and is the leader in the soft-drink industry in Russia. It outsells Coca-Cola by a ratio of 6 to 1 and is seen there as a local brand, similar to Coke’s homegrown reputation in Japan. However, Pepsi has also encountered some obstacles. An expected increase in brand loyalty for Pepsi subsequent to its advertising blitz in Russia has not materialized, even though Pepsi produced commercials tailored to the Russian market and sponsored televised concerts.

Some analysts believe that Pepsi’s domination of the Russian market has more to do with pricing. While Pepsi sells for 250 Rubles (about 25 cents) a bottle, Coca-Cola sells for 450 Rubles. Likewise, Pepsi sells their 2 liter economy bottle for 1,300 Rubles, while Coca-Cola’s 1.5 liters is marketed at 1,800 rubles. On the other hand, Coca-Cola only made its first inroads into Russia 2 years ago. What's more, although Coca-Cola's bottle and label give it a high-class image, Russians do not perceive Coca-Cola as a premium brand in the Russian market. Consequently, it has so far been unable to capture a market share.

1. According to the passage, all of the following have been used to attract customers to buy a one of the two brands of soft drink mentioned in the passage EXCEPT

Offering soft drinks for a limited time at specially reduced prices

Sponsoring televised concerts

Designing a bottle and label to create a high-class image

Staging an advertising blitz including commercials tailored to the local market

Being the first country to enter a foreign market

The best answer is A. Answers (b), (C), (D) and (E) are all mentioned in the passage as ploys used by either Pepsi or Coca Cola to attract new customers

2. The passage suggests which of the following about the Russian soft drink market?

Price is an unimportant factor in the Russian soft drink market

Two liter economy bottles are more marketable than 1.5-liter economy bottles, especially those sporting a high-class image.

One and a half liter economy bottles are more marketable than two liter economy bottles, if sold at a lower price.

Russian consumers are more likely to purchase a product if the perceive it to be a local brand

The Russian soft drink market is saturated with local brands.

The best answer is D. The passage states that one of the factors contributing to Pepsi’s success in Russia is its perception by the public as a local brand.

3. The primary purpose of the passage is to

Review the marketing history of two soft drink giants

Contrast two different approaches to marketing soft drinks in the global market

Refute the traditional explanation for Pepsi’s success in the Russian soft drink market

Compare how well two soft drink companies have succeeded in a new foreign market

Explain why two soft drink companies have succeeded in a new foreign market

The best answer is D. The passage mainly compares Pepsi’s success in a new foreign market, Russia, with Coca Cola’s relative failure. (A) is too general. (B) is incorrect because both companies have the same general approach.

4. Which of the following best describes the relation of the first paragraph to the passage as a whole?

It poses a question to be answered

It outlines an objective whose attainment will be discussed

It outlines a process to be analyzed

It advances and argument to be disputed

It introduces conflicting arguments to be reconciled

The best answer is B. The first paragraph asks and answers the question of where the sale of the next 10 billion cases will come from, namely foreign markets. The rest of the passage discusses ways in which the objective of conquering foreign markets is accomplished.

With the proliferation of electronic technologies in the latter part of the twentieth century, many aspects of cultural practice have been redefined. The eradication of physical boundaries that limit discourse and information access has had profound effects upon the manner in which we conduct democracy. Yet, opinions strongly differ over whether or not the growth of electronic networks will result in expanded democracy. On one side of the debate are anti-utopians who fear that with the intrusion of the Internet into many facets of life, personal freedom will be impeded and the existing rift between the "haves" and "have-nots" in society will grow. On the other side, many 'cyber-utopians' believe that new technologies can eliminate the democracy of elected representatives with which so many people are dissatisfied. The Internet, they say, will allow for a true participatory democracy in which citizens can govern themselves without the interference of bureaucrats and legislators.

Neither of these theories by themselves can fully address the role of democracy in the age of information. As debates about censorship and encryption have shown, government regulation of the Internet can result in violations of the basic rights of speech set forth in the constitution of the United States. Yet, groups that preach ‘Big Brother’ theories of paranoia tend to neglect the fact that new technologies can help balance the injustices of traditional power found in a centralized government. At the same time, the likelihood of doing away with the present system of democracy in favor of complete and pure self-governance seems impossible, and likely undesirable.

Both arguments about the future of the way in which discourse will occur highlight the inherent relationship between communication and democracy. Perhaps a more useful model for the study of this dynamic can be found in the model of the public sphere proposed by Jorgen Habermas. In this realm, free and diverse equals come together to deliberate and discuss pertinent issues without the impediment of external coercion. The ensuing dialogue transpires in a profoundly democratic forum. The dispensing of traditional hierarchies that occurs on the Internet appears to make possible the type of categories necessary for Habermas ‘ideal speech situation to occur.

However, postmodern critics indicate that the autonomous individual no longer exists in a world where our identities are constructed as much for us as by us. And indeed, much of the postmodern notion of self seems to fit closely with reconfigurations of the subject brought on by electronic technologies. The question that arises then is, how might the reconfiguration of communication enabled by the Internet work to create a new form of 'cyber-democracy’ that better represents citizens' interests?

1. According to the passage, the 'cyber-utopians' mentioned in the passage would most likely be in favor of which of the following innovations?

Every new legislation would be voted by every registered voter on the Internet

Government would increase the regulation of the Internet to include a curtailing of politically biased messages

Government would decrease the regulation of the Internet including regulation of politically biased messages

Discourse in legislative assemblies would be broadcast over the Internet

New technologies would gradually replace all forms of democracy

The best answer is A. According to the passage, 'cyber-utopians' believe that through using the Internet, there could be a true participatory democracy, meaning that all citizens, not just elected representatives could make legislative decisions.

2. The passage supports which of the following statements about government regulation of the Internet?

Government regulation of the Internet can result in infringements upon citizen’s constitutional rights of free speech

Government regulation of the Internet can ensure against infringements upon citizen’s constitutional rights of free speech

Government regulation of the Internet will make pure self-governance possible

Government regulation of the Internet will promote new technologies that can help balance the injustices of traditional power

Government regulation of the Internet will eradicate physical boundaries that limit discourse and information

The best answer is A. As stated in paragraph three, government regulation of the Internet can result in violations of the basic rights of speech set forth in the constitution.

3. The author is primarily concerned with

Advocating the use of the electronic technologies to improve democracy

Challenging the assumptions on which a theory of modern democracy is based

Describing events leading to the discovery of democratic uses of electronic technologies

Explaining the importance of electronic technologies to modern politics

Examining the relationship between Internet communication and democracy

The best answer is E. The answer is not (A) because the author does not reach any conclusions. (D) is incorrect because it does not discuss modern politics in general.

4. According to the passage, which of the following is considered by postmodern critics to be a threat to the notion of self?

The interference of bureaucrats and legislators.

The proliferation of electronic technologies.

Reconfigurations of the subject brought on by electronic technologies.

Traditional hierarchies that occur on the Internet.

The impediment of external coercion.

The best answer is C. In the last paragraph, it says that much of the postmodern notion of self seems to fit closely with reconfigurations of the subject brought on by electronic technologies.

Men are primarily and secondarily socialized into believing certain characteristics are definitive in determining their masculinity. These characteristics range from playing violently to not crying when they are injured. The socialization of masculinity in our society begins as early as the first stages of infancy, with awareness of adult gender role differences being internalized by children as young as two years old.

Studies show that advertising imagery equates masculinity with violence by portraying the trait of aggression as instrumental to establishing their masculinity. Lee Bowker, who researched the influence of advertisements on youth, asserts that toy advertisements featuring only boys depict aggressive behavior and that the aggressive behavior produces positive consequences more often than negative.

Bowker also looked at commercials with boys that contain references to domination. His results indicated that 68.6% of the commercials positioned toward boys contain incidents of verbal and physical aggression. However there were no cross gender displays of aggressive behavior. Interestingly, not one single-sex commercial featuring girls showed any act of aggression. Bowker’s research helps explain that it is not just the reinforcement of a child’s close caretakers that lends legitimacy to aggressive masculine tendencies but society as a whole, using the medium of television.

William Pollack, a Harvard clinical psychologist, talks about how males have been put in a "gender straightjacket" that leads to anger, despair and often violence. Pollack states that society asks men to put a whole range of feelings and emotions behind a mask and shames them if they display any emotion. Pollack contends that boys are ‘shame phobics’, even killing, in extreme cases, to avoid dishonor. It appears that the standard defined by society allows men to express their emotion only through anger. Ironically, though these rigid stereotypes of what it means to be a man have been inculcated from an early age, men are often criticized for being one-dimensional in their behavior and emotions.

Women often verbalize a desire for males to be sensitive and express their emotions. But male insensitivity is the culmination of a societal indoctrination begun at birth. Realistically, men are in a damned if they do, damned if they don’t situation. If they fail to show their emotions, they are berated for being detached from the essence of what constitutes a human being. On the other hand, if a male decides to expose his emotions, he is often branded effeminate and regarded as inferior to other males who stick closer to their gender’s traditional doctrine.

1. According to the passage, the television commercials examined by Bowker

Showed boys in more acts of verbal and physical aggression than of domination

Showed boys in more acts of domination than of verbal and physical aggression

Showed boys in acts of verbal and physical aggression only towards other boys

Showed boys in acts of verbal and physical aggression only towards other girls

Showed boys in acts of verbal and physical aggression towards other boys and girls

The best answer is C. Bowker’s research did not find any cross gender displays of aggressive behavior, i.e. aggression of one gender to another

2. According to Pollack, one of the reasons for male violence is that

Society shames men who display feelings and emotions other than anger

Men kill in extreme cases to avoid dishonor

Men are often criticized for being one-dimensional in their behavior and emotions

Society uses television as a symbol of its desires

Reinforcement from child’s close caretakers lends legitimacy to aggressive masculine behavior

The best answer is A. (B) is incorrect because it does not give a reason for violence. (C) is a result of the conditioning that leads to violence, not a reason. (D) and (E) are incorrect because they are not opinions expressed by Pollack.

3. The passage suggests that, when compared with television advertisement featuring boys, advertisements that had only girls were found

To have more references to domination

To be 68.6% less aggressive

To be remarkably similar in focus and content

To be replete with extensive examples of cross gender aggression

To be void of any acts of aggression

The best answer is E. Bowker found that not one single-sex commercial featuring girls showed any act of aggression.

4. Pollack uses the term ‘gender straightjacket’ to emphasize

The narrow range of emotion that society allows men to express

The broad range of emotion that society allows men to express

The danger of anger, despair and violence towards men

The danger of anger, despair and violence perpetrated by men

The wide range of feelings that men actually experience

The best answer is A. Society does not allow men to act in ways it has deemed inappropriate, hence Pollack considers the male gender to be in a ‘straightjacket’.

Juror anonymity was unknown to American common law and jurisprudence in the country’s first two centuries. Anonymity was first employed in federal prosecutions of organized crime in New York in the 1980's. Although anonymous juries are unusual since they are typically only empanelled in organized-crime cases, its use has spread more recently to widely publicized cases, such as the federal prosecution of police officers accused of beating Rodney King and the trial of those accused of the 1993 World Trade Center bombing.

In these cases, attorneys selected a jury from a panel of prospective jurors whose names, addresses, ethnic backgrounds and religious affiliations remained unknown to either side. This unorthodox procedure, designed to protect jurors from outside influence and the fear of retaliation, has occasionally been employed in New York federal courts since the trial of drug kingpin Leroy "Nicky" Barnes. Despite apparent benefits, critics assail anonymous juries on the grounds that they are an infringement of the sixth amendment guarantee of an impartial jury and because they present a serious and unnecessary erosion of the presumption of innocence.

Since many attorneys believe trials are frequently won or lost during jury selection, any procedure diminishing the role of counsel in the procedure necessitates close scrutiny and criticism. Opponents of anonymous juries argue that the procedure restricts meaningful voir dire, (questioning of the jury panel), and thereby undermines the defendant's sixth amendment right to an impartial jury. Critics also claim that jurors interpret their anonymity as proof of the defendant's criminal proclivity, thereby subverting the presumption of innocence.

However, consistent with due process and the sixth amendment, the trial judge may refuse to ask prospective jurors any questions not reasonably calculated to expose biases or prejudices relevant to the case. Although addresses and group affiliations may indicate significant potential for bias, attorneys do not have an unfettered right to this information in every circumstance. Denying access to these facts may indeed constrain an attorney's ability to assemble an ideal jury, but it violates no constitutional right.

1. The primary purpose of the passage is to

Enumerate reasons why anonymous juries are unconstitutional

Discuss whether anonymous juries are an infringement of the sixth amendmen